ONT Re: Inquiry Into Models
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Sungchul Ji wrote (SJ):
SJ: Dear Howard,
I have been enjoying and learning a lot from your passionate dialogue
with Jon these several weeks, and I hope you will continue. For now,
I have a question for you. What is the essential difference, if any,
between the Hertz's and Rosen's theories of modeling? If they are
different in some essential ways, what was the influence, if any,
of Hertz's theory on Rosen's?
Sung, Howard, All, ...
Sorry to break in -- I am still behind in my homework on Rosen, so I promise that
I will quickly retire to the peanut gallery with respect to that side of the issue --
but there is a generic component of this question that I have worried about since
I first woke up one fine or fuzzy day in one of my old phil or phys or psy classes
and started to think seriously about causality, and since I have already tried to
air my worries about this several times in this forum already, I feel entitled to
keep on pestering folks about it until I arrive at a measure of satisfaction.
Let me express it, this time around, in the form of a very old question:
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| Does not the effect imply its causes?
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There it is,
Jon Awbrey
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